Dear Turtle:
I wanted to respectfully request your take on the following.
I note above, that you quote, John 14:7, 10-12 and 16,17. However you do not quote verse 20. (I am using the NIV Bible for this as found on
www.biblegateway.com)
I note, that John 14:9 and 10, states, “Jesus answered: "Don't you know me, Philip, even after I have been among you such a long time? Anyone who has seen me has seen the Father. How can you say, 'Show us the Father'? Don't you believe that [I am in the Father], and that [the Father is in me]? The words I say to you are not just my own. Rather, it is the Father, living in me, who is doing his work.” (brackets added).
Now at first glance, taking Jesus’ simple and clearly stated words, without considering the context or reading from other scriptures in the Bible, one could easily, reasonably and fairly conclude that Jesus is indeed God! However, one only has to simply look a little further on in this same Chapter of John 14, to verse 20, where Jesus states “On that day you will realize that [I am in my Father], and [you are in me], and [I am in you].” Now, it appears that we have total and clear clarification, for what is expressed above in verses 9 and 10, with simple and clear language (without any outside sources) and without any doubt, we KNOW that his disciples (including us) are not “literally” in or inside Jesus, any more than Jesus is in or inside his Father, (since if you are using this verse to support this idea) but according to these verses, rather, they are, as we are (as supported above), “one” with Jesus, meaning “one” in purpose, and “one” in spirit (Please See 1 Corinthians 6:17) as Jesus is “one” in purpose and in spirit with his Father, therefore, it is not fair to use these verses to mean, that God and Jesus are the same person any more than his disciples, nor you and I are Jesus, or in Jesus literally, as one person or being! In the end if believe in the Trinity doctrine, then know that at the very least, if you are being fair, that the scripture you quoted above for this, does not state Jesus is God or God is Jesus in a literal way! (It also does not discuss the Holy Spirit here either for the third part of this doctrine).
It is interesting to note, that the NIV, states at 1 Corinthians 2:16, “For who has known the mind of the Lord that he may instruct him?"[a] But we have the mind of Christ.” Please note two things; 1. Jesus was already back in heaven when these verses were inspired to be written and; 2 how this verse completely separates the mind of “the Lord” from the “mind of Christ” which would make no sense, if they are the same person (or spirit being) and have the same mind literally. Other Bibles use “the LORD” (in capital letters as a substitute for the Divine Name, God’s personal name) in order to separate and distinguish it from the “mind of Christ” showing two different minds from two separate spirit beings!
I welcome your thoughts.
TonyP